Yes, it is. Euroland represents about 11.5% of the global economy by purchasing power parity. "Internationa equities" as a class includes companies that sell literally anywhere in the world. Most of the earnings of most of the companies whose shares would be classed as "international equities" are derived in currencies that are not the euro.This is generally accepted but is it entirely or even approximately correct?
If prices rise then corporate revenues also rise,
No, I don't think so.This contradicts the above statement.
Again, bear in mind that exchange rate risk and inflation risk are not the same thing.
Well, let's think this through.Let's take Toyota. They will have significant revenues in the UK. But does that mean they are vulnerable to the £? Only second order; the price of a Corolla (apologies @Corola and @Corolla) will flex with the currency.
Not even Chatgpt will hazard a guess as to the percentage of Toyota's revenue's that is derived in the UK, but it does telll me that 1.3% of Toyota's vehicle sales by unit are in the UK. Let's pretend that they also derive 1.3% of their gross revenues from the UK.
Let's also pretend that all the Toyota vehicles sold in the UK are imported. This isn't true, but it will simplify the position so that we can identify what happens when (a) UK inflation shifts, or (b) the sterliing exchange rate shifts.
Lets take those two things in order, first separately and then together.
Inflation: UK prices goes up (but the sterling exchange rate is unchanged)
On the one hand, Toyota has to pay more for its UK inputs — its distribution and sales operation. On the other, it can charge more for its cars (because its competitors are also charging more). So — costs up, revenues up, turnover up. If they all go up by the same percentage, and if profit margins are maintained, Toyota's UK profits are up. All other things being equal, UK earnings now amount to a tiny bit more than 1.3% of Toyota's worldwide earnings. Obviously this isn't going to make a huge difference to the price of Toyota shares, but it will tend to make the price rise rather than fall.
Exchange rate: sterling falls (but UK prices are unchanged)
This has the opposite effect: UK revenues are unchanged (in nominal sterling terms) but when you convert UK revenues to yen they buy less yen, so UK earnings now account for a tiny bit less than 1.3% of Toyota's global earnings. All other things being equal, Toyota's global earnings are a tiny bit less than they used to be, so this tends to cause the price of Toyota shares to fall.
Both of these things happen together
Exhange rates and inflation are not the same thing, but they are not completely unconnected. If the UK suffers a bout of inflation then UK-produced goods become more expensive (in nominal sterling terms). They are less competitive on the world market so fewer people want to buy them so UK exports fall. Because people are importing less from the UK they don't need to buy sterling to pay for UK goods, so demand for sterling falls, so the sterling exchange rate weakens, which of course means UK goods become a bit more competitive again, so more people start to buy them again, so sterling doesn't fall indefinitely; it settles a slightly lower value.
So, the inflationary effect on the Toyota share price of UK car prices going up is offset by the deflationary effect on the Toyota share price of sterling going down. It's unlikely the two will cancel one another out exactly and the net impact on the share price could be either slightly positive or slightly negative. Because UK revenues are only 1.3% of global revenues it hardly matters; whether the net effect of these two factors is slightly positive or slightly negative, it's likely to be swamped by the effect of other, unrelated factors.
It would matter more if we were talking about the US, where Toyota might earn, say, 25% of its global revenues.