This won't keep me awake at night but looking at a single share purchase here and I always thought I could understand/explain the currency impact of investing in a foreign currency... what am I missing?
Shares in Coca Cola HBC AG purchased in 2016
Price at the time: £13.05
EUR/GBP rate at the time: 0.761
EUR price at the time: E17.15
Current values
GBP price today: £36.66
EUR/GBP rate today: 0.88
EUR price today: E41.66
In GBP terms, the investment has gained 181%
In EUR terms, the investment has gained 143%
The currency loss is almost 40% based on the weakening of GBP between the two points.
Yet, using the rate for the two periods, sterling has weakened by c.14%.
What is the relationship between the c.40% and the c.14%... I assume the % increase in the base investment magnifies or diminishes the currency movement over time (for this investment) and there is a - simple - mathematical principle underpinning everything here?
Shares in Coca Cola HBC AG purchased in 2016
Price at the time: £13.05
EUR/GBP rate at the time: 0.761
EUR price at the time: E17.15
Current values
GBP price today: £36.66
EUR/GBP rate today: 0.88
EUR price today: E41.66
In GBP terms, the investment has gained 181%
In EUR terms, the investment has gained 143%
The currency loss is almost 40% based on the weakening of GBP between the two points.
Yet, using the rate for the two periods, sterling has weakened by c.14%.
What is the relationship between the c.40% and the c.14%... I assume the % increase in the base investment magnifies or diminishes the currency movement over time (for this investment) and there is a - simple - mathematical principle underpinning everything here?