if he had traded it he would have got the excess in value over the GMFV as his deposit for a new financing,
Now were getting into what I've been asking
Here's the scenario I've been thinking about, forget about EV vs ICE values and lets say the depreciation is 50% after 3 years and that will be the OMV after 3 years and the dealers trade in value will be 50% of the excess over GMFV and the car your buying is €45k with 0% interest
The depreciation after 5 years will be 60% and we'll leave the dealers margin the same at €3750
So you've €15k down, €15k over 3 years and final is balloon is €15k
The car after 3 years is worth €22.5K but the dealers trade in value is half of the €7.5k so only €3750 excess
So you start a new PCP with a new €45k car
€3750+€11250 down, €15k over 3 years and then €15k final payment
and again the car is worth €22.5k
So my question which IMO is related to PCP, is it better to take a break of two years after and then start a new PCP??
Trade in value €14250+€750, €15k for 3 years and then the final €15k balloon payment
So your question cant be answered it depends on the facts in each specific case and its not really PCP related either.
After typing this and running the above numbers I think I've answered my own question,
In that it would be cheaper by €4.5K to run the two PCP's back to back then take a break of 2 years in between
Obviously this is a hypothetical example, in the real world there would be a lot more factors to consider
Thanks
@Blackrock1 and
@Setforlife for taking the time to answer me, it might not make sense to you or others reading but it does to me
