Just looking for some guidance for my parents before they do anything.
They bought some shares in Kerry Co-Op way back in the late 90's. Over the years, some of these have been converted to the Plc shares. They are now looking to sell some of these PLC shares without creating a tax liability.
The price they paid for 1 Co-Op shares at the time was €20 (IR£ equivalent)
So if 20 of these shares converted to 160 Plc shares . Is the cost base for tax purposes the 20*20 or €400 and if they sold all these converted 160 shares at the current price of €93 to give €14,880 they will have a huge CCT liability? ( I know they have a CGT allowance each but...)
Have I adopted a too simplistic approach to this?
Thanks for any help in advance.
They bought some shares in Kerry Co-Op way back in the late 90's. Over the years, some of these have been converted to the Plc shares. They are now looking to sell some of these PLC shares without creating a tax liability.
The price they paid for 1 Co-Op shares at the time was €20 (IR£ equivalent)
So if 20 of these shares converted to 160 Plc shares . Is the cost base for tax purposes the 20*20 or €400 and if they sold all these converted 160 shares at the current price of €93 to give €14,880 they will have a huge CCT liability? ( I know they have a CGT allowance each but...)
Have I adopted a too simplistic approach to this?
Thanks for any help in advance.