Ok so here is the situation and my understanding of tax treatment concerning same. I would appreciate comments as to whether Im missing something here.
I have a PPR and currently enjoy MIR as a first time buyer of that residence at a 30% rate.
I want to buy a larger residence and do not need to sell my current PPR. However if I do I would lose FTB MIR on my first property (as it would be classified an investment property) and I would not receive any MIR on the second property I buy as it was scrapped since Jan 2013 assuming I classify the 2nd property as my PPR?
There is no CGT on an investment property bought this year so long as you hold it for 7 years.
Therefore the most tax effective way is for me to buy a second property is to classify it as an investment property. I pay no CGT when I sell it in 7 years and hence its tax reatment is similar to a PPR. I also get to keep my MIR on the first property as my PPR.
Have I got this right?
I have a PPR and currently enjoy MIR as a first time buyer of that residence at a 30% rate.
I want to buy a larger residence and do not need to sell my current PPR. However if I do I would lose FTB MIR on my first property (as it would be classified an investment property) and I would not receive any MIR on the second property I buy as it was scrapped since Jan 2013 assuming I classify the 2nd property as my PPR?
There is no CGT on an investment property bought this year so long as you hold it for 7 years.
Therefore the most tax effective way is for me to buy a second property is to classify it as an investment property. I pay no CGT when I sell it in 7 years and hence its tax reatment is similar to a PPR. I also get to keep my MIR on the first property as my PPR.
Have I got this right?