No. Sounds like a GDPR breachMy employer requested me to attend a private medical assessment which I did. The report was sent to my line manager naming all my conditions without my consent. He then sent it to a Consultancy company for some clarifications. Is the usual practice.
Thanks
That’s not correct. The manager is entitled to know that the person is not available for work and for how long. Whether iirs because of a sore foot or depression is not his concern.The line manager / management would need to know implications of your condition as to how it would affect your ability to work ... unsure what issue is .. did you just want line manager to know only that you were ‘sick’ ?
Well if it affects their ability to do the job - it’s the manager’s right. The employer can refuse to allow the person back to the job if they are unable to undertake duties. Example - lifting and the worker has a back injury. Similarly if they have a mental health issue that might need attention
My employer requested me to attend a private medical assessment which I did. The report was sent to my line manager naming all my conditions without my consent. He then sent it to a Consultancy company for some clarifications. Is the usual practice.
Thanks
Details of medical conditions can only be shared with the specific consent of the employee and only if specifically relevant to the job they carry out. The report sent to employer should contain as assessment of their ability to carry out their duties. It should not contain specifics of any medical condition.Might the job you do have a bearing on what information needs to be known by managers, supervisors, other workers, etc? To suggest the Co was out of order based on the little information given seems a little simplistic.
That's a clear breach of confidentiality and sharing the report within the employers organisation is a clear breach of data protection.The report was sent to my line manager naming all my conditions without my consent.
Might the job you do have a bearing on what information needs to be known by managers, supervisors, other workers, etc? To suggest the Co was out of order based on the little information given seems a little simplistic.
This is an important point; since the employer/employee relationship is not a coequal one it is not possible for an employee to give consent to their employer to divulge their personal data to a 3rd party. There must be another reason which make such a divulgence necessary.Even if the OP gave consent, it would unlikely to be sufficient due to employer/employee relationship.