Well, I get it now to a degree.
Is the following correct?
A person wants to buy a house, so they, personally, apply for a loan. The bank is prepared to give a loan, but only with security.. and they want the house as security. Having the house as security means that the lender has control over certain aspects of the house.. mainly the ability of the owners to sell their own house. So the owners can no longer sell their own house, they can only do so if the lender agrees. And the lender never agress if it will leave a shortfall.
So Superquinn want a loan... and Superquinn, in it's own right, is applying. (Superquinn the company, a legal person in its own right, applies for a loan),.. of 400m say. Do the bank want security on this loan?, and what security do they take?
(If the bank don't want security there's a problem,.. but it should be a problem for the silly bank, and not for anyone else.)
(If Superquinn itself doesn't apply for a loan, but instead owners do.. well then the bank must have security on the individuals who applied, and they probably couldn't care less what happens to SQ, if the bank have adequate security on the owners themselves)
So in the SQ case, the bank likely have security on SQ itself, on SQ business, or on SQ property. And wouldn't this mean that the bank can block sales? So how can a receiver sell such a company if banks have the final say on selling?
So, in my opinion, SQ can only be sold if the bank agree to take a hit. The banks could choose to take hits on private house sales in neg. eq. but they don't. So the banks seem to write off huge loans, but not smaller ones.
I get the point though,.. if SQ has assets of 200m and debts of 400m, then SQ is worthless... in fact it's worth negative money. So yes, SQ simply cannot continue, and isn't worth buying unless the debts can be wiped... because as Brendan says.. if both assets and debts are sold SQ would have to pay the new buyer 200m.. and they don't have it.
So the bank appear to be happy now, to get the 200m market value of the business, and write off the other 200m (All figures are made up, and are likely wrong). The laternative may be to get less. The social aspect should not be considered by the bank at all, .. it should be entirely a commercial decision, .. nothing to do with the social damage a failed SQ could cause. Unless the government want to intervene in the public interest, through legislation, or regulation or whatever. So the bank should be able to demonstrate that no better deal was possible... and I can't see how they were assured, if they did actually agree to sell to what must have been the first bidder.
But why should such an important decision, to wipe the debts, be left to the bank anyway, especially if the bank cannot take the hit? (well, only if the bank cannot take the hit, if they can, fine, take whatever hits they want and can afford). So both the bank and SQ are bankrupt now (if the bank cannot take the hit), and both should fail. (I understand that it might not be clear that the bank cannot take the hit, perhaps they can and the shareholders won't be happy)
But if the bank is government owned, then the government should be in the board room actually running the bank,. and a government minister should be writing the cheques. If a Gov. Minister was writing the cheques then there'd be no problems with bonuses etc, and we'd have a fair and consistent approach to writing off debts, instead of each bank operating according to its own whims. The government could also take social factors into account, which should be disallowed for a private bank.
I don't understand why government owned banks (i.e majority owned) continue to run themselves, in the same failing way as previously. Why doesn't the government use its veto vote to run the bank itself? Why do we accept our government saying things like 'well, the private bank, which we own, is making its own decisions, which we don't like, and despite the fact that we own the bank, we claim we can do nothing,..."... that's what happened in relation to bonuses.