Shakespeare
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If a self employed (LTD Company) individual has claimed some expenses over a few years that following a tax audit, are deemed not allowable (thanks to the accountant who said there was nothing to be concerned about!!!!!!) How is the liability before penalties calculated?
For example if eur10k expenses was paid out tax free but actually the expenses weren't allowable, why can the liability not be the value of the tax that should have been paid on it (plus any penalty if applicable).
The revenue are saying the liability is eur11k tax due plus 20% penalty. Ie they are dividing by .48 and multiplying by.52 this would give the figure that the company would have to have earnings of 21kgross to pay out 10k net but there are no retained earnings year on year so if the expenses hadn't been claimed but instead were paid out as salary then the 10k would have attracted tax at 52% why can this now be paid in settlement rather than 11k - totally in good faith (I know no defence) we are facing a tax bill not of eur15k (3 years tax on expenses of 10k being declared disallowed) but of eur42k !!!!and I'm climbing the walls?
Any insights appreciated ?
For example if eur10k expenses was paid out tax free but actually the expenses weren't allowable, why can the liability not be the value of the tax that should have been paid on it (plus any penalty if applicable).
The revenue are saying the liability is eur11k tax due plus 20% penalty. Ie they are dividing by .48 and multiplying by.52 this would give the figure that the company would have to have earnings of 21kgross to pay out 10k net but there are no retained earnings year on year so if the expenses hadn't been claimed but instead were paid out as salary then the 10k would have attracted tax at 52% why can this now be paid in settlement rather than 11k - totally in good faith (I know no defence) we are facing a tax bill not of eur15k (3 years tax on expenses of 10k being declared disallowed) but of eur42k !!!!and I'm climbing the walls?
Any insights appreciated ?