First time poster alert!
Don't know where to start with this. Please forgive the long post.
My employer recently informed me that they had overpaid me in my January 2019 payroll, and would have to take back the overpayment in February (400+ euro worth). This was because with the new real-time revenue, a change in the way my tax credits are allocated had been flagged, but this wasn't applied to my January payroll. In addition, my net salary was also down 400 euro.
When I went investigating why the tax credit change had occurred (as neither I nor my wife had requested this), I discovered that I had no 2018 tax cert, and neither did revenue. I effectively wasn't employed for all of 2018 as far as revenue are concerned, and my personal tax credit had automatically switched to my wife in January 2018. My wife's 2018 cert didn't have my employer listed either.
But, because there was no 2018 tax cert issued, my employer never knew about the change in the tax credit allocation, and as a result, for ALL of 2018, I was still being paid on the 2017 basis, where I had my 3300 tax credit. And my wife was being paid on the basis of my personal credit having been switched to her (4950 credit).
This has left us with a tax underpayment to the tune of about 5100EURO, and my net salary being reduced by 400 going forward. (This is as a result of the tax bands, and is not a recalculation to payback revenue.)
On ringing revenue, they informed me that I had been "ceased" on their records at the start of 2018, and this triggered my personal tax credit switching to my wife. They said this was probably caused by a "Christmas Day Employment" record being added to my revenue record, which seems to be a 1 day employment record. I have no idea why that would happen, or what it is, and revenue don't know why it happened either (according to the chap I spoke to).
So, through no fault of my own, I am now left owing revenue 5 grand.
My question is not about the figures, as that all makes sense. My question is about who is to blame. I know ultimately, revenue will say it's up to me to make sure my tax is correct, but should this have been noticed by my employer? I'm not sure how they would know if they never received a tax cert? Should they have questioned why I never received a tax cert? Should the quarterly p30s have flagged this within revenue, as I would have been on them when they were returned by my employer, but if revenue thought I wasn't employed, should that have been flagged?
Has anyone heard of this type of thing happening before?
Again, sorry for such a long post. I hope I have explained the situation!
Don't know where to start with this. Please forgive the long post.
My employer recently informed me that they had overpaid me in my January 2019 payroll, and would have to take back the overpayment in February (400+ euro worth). This was because with the new real-time revenue, a change in the way my tax credits are allocated had been flagged, but this wasn't applied to my January payroll. In addition, my net salary was also down 400 euro.
When I went investigating why the tax credit change had occurred (as neither I nor my wife had requested this), I discovered that I had no 2018 tax cert, and neither did revenue. I effectively wasn't employed for all of 2018 as far as revenue are concerned, and my personal tax credit had automatically switched to my wife in January 2018. My wife's 2018 cert didn't have my employer listed either.
But, because there was no 2018 tax cert issued, my employer never knew about the change in the tax credit allocation, and as a result, for ALL of 2018, I was still being paid on the 2017 basis, where I had my 3300 tax credit. And my wife was being paid on the basis of my personal credit having been switched to her (4950 credit).
This has left us with a tax underpayment to the tune of about 5100EURO, and my net salary being reduced by 400 going forward. (This is as a result of the tax bands, and is not a recalculation to payback revenue.)
On ringing revenue, they informed me that I had been "ceased" on their records at the start of 2018, and this triggered my personal tax credit switching to my wife. They said this was probably caused by a "Christmas Day Employment" record being added to my revenue record, which seems to be a 1 day employment record. I have no idea why that would happen, or what it is, and revenue don't know why it happened either (according to the chap I spoke to).
So, through no fault of my own, I am now left owing revenue 5 grand.
My question is not about the figures, as that all makes sense. My question is about who is to blame. I know ultimately, revenue will say it's up to me to make sure my tax is correct, but should this have been noticed by my employer? I'm not sure how they would know if they never received a tax cert? Should they have questioned why I never received a tax cert? Should the quarterly p30s have flagged this within revenue, as I would have been on them when they were returned by my employer, but if revenue thought I wasn't employed, should that have been flagged?
Has anyone heard of this type of thing happening before?
Again, sorry for such a long post. I hope I have explained the situation!