Could be wrong here but when calculating s break fund cost from fixed rate don't the bank use "prevailing"rate at beginning of fixed period as part of the calculation. Its the use of the word prevailing is the question. Why not use SVR especially if this was an available product. All institutions were using the term SVR in early 2000's so it was ambiguous wording and could be interpreted anyway really. But get exactly what you're saying. Devils advocate is needed.