I was wondering about the following situation.
A house is purchased using a joint mortgage (as a married couple) but only one name is put on the deeds for the house.
In the event of a separation of the couple would the person whose name is on the deeds be the only person with ownership rights of the house.
Assume as well here that the 2nd person has not contributed financially to the new house.
I'm pretty sure this would be the case if the couple are not married but I'm unsure in the case of a married couple and a family home etc.
If they are living in the house then it's protected by the family home act regardless of what the deeds say but in the event of them splitting then obviously a calculation would have to be made re who is entitled to what, not always as simple as 50/50 split, in fact quite a bit more complicated than that. But technically yes the person on the deeds owns the house but can't sell or remortgage without consent of spouse.