Hi,
I was wondering about the following situation.
A house is purchased using a joint mortgage (as a married couple) but only one name is put on the deeds for the house.
In the event of a separation of the couple would the person whose name is on the deeds be the only person with ownership rights of the house.
Assume as well here that the 2nd person has not contributed financially to the new house.
I'm pretty sure this would be the case if the couple are not married but I'm unsure in the case of a married couple and a family home etc.
Advice greatly appreciated.
I was wondering about the following situation.
A house is purchased using a joint mortgage (as a married couple) but only one name is put on the deeds for the house.
In the event of a separation of the couple would the person whose name is on the deeds be the only person with ownership rights of the house.
Assume as well here that the 2nd person has not contributed financially to the new house.
I'm pretty sure this would be the case if the couple are not married but I'm unsure in the case of a married couple and a family home etc.
Advice greatly appreciated.