Hello everyone,
I have a question that I have tried to find the answer to but can’t seem to get a definitive conclusion.
Here’s the timeline:
June 2016 – get divorced
Jan 2017- get married to a penniless UK artist with no income of his own
Mar 2017 – finally sell property owned by myself and first husband
As far as I can make out, I can’t regain my First Time Buyer status post-divorce. If anyone knows different, do tell!
If I wish to buy another home, can my husband be considered as a first time buyer? Or does the fact that he is essentially a dependant of mine mean only my history can be considered under the lending rules?
Thanks,
Serenn.
I have a question that I have tried to find the answer to but can’t seem to get a definitive conclusion.
Here’s the timeline:
June 2016 – get divorced
Jan 2017- get married to a penniless UK artist with no income of his own
Mar 2017 – finally sell property owned by myself and first husband
As far as I can make out, I can’t regain my First Time Buyer status post-divorce. If anyone knows different, do tell!
If I wish to buy another home, can my husband be considered as a first time buyer? Or does the fact that he is essentially a dependant of mine mean only my history can be considered under the lending rules?
Thanks,
Serenn.