Hi there, hope someone can help me here! I'm thinking about buying a property in the new year so here is my query. Will I be classed as a first time buyer in the following circumstances:
- I previously had a mortgage for a house I built with my partner.
- When we split up we found out that only his name was on the deeds of the house (as the land was in his sole name) so I didn't actually own any part of it despite the mortgage being in both names.
Thanks in advance for any advice.
- I previously had a mortgage for a house I built with my partner.
- When we split up we found out that only his name was on the deeds of the house (as the land was in his sole name) so I didn't actually own any part of it despite the mortgage being in both names.
Thanks in advance for any advice.