Am I correct in saying that if a bank can prove a defendant is
A. Incapable of making repayment
B. And that a defendant has told the estranged spouse
That the bank can repossess a family home regardless of separation proceedings being in play.
Is this what the family home protection act 1976 says?
A. Incapable of making repayment
B. And that a defendant has told the estranged spouse
That the bank can repossess a family home regardless of separation proceedings being in play.
Is this what the family home protection act 1976 says?