This may be a stupid question - similar to the "I don't know what a tracker mortgage is" advert - but what is the definition of a non-performing loan?
The reason for my question is that I think I read somewhere that the Central Bank defines any mortgages that have been re-structured, irrespective of whether or not the new terms are being adhered to, as non-performing. Is this the case?
I have BTL mortgages with BoI which were initially interest only. The interest-only period came to an end in mid-2014 and the rental income wasn't sufficient to cover full capital and interest repayments so I worked with the bank and they gave me a split mortgage which was to be reviewed after 3 years. This was reviewed this time last year so I'm now on full capital and interest repayments but the term of the mortgages have been extended. I have never missed any payments while on interest-only, split payments and full repayment mortgages. Would my BTL mortgages with BoI be considered non-performing and could be sold on to vulture funds if BoI were to sell on BTL loans in the future?
The reason for my question is that I think I read somewhere that the Central Bank defines any mortgages that have been re-structured, irrespective of whether or not the new terms are being adhered to, as non-performing. Is this the case?
I have BTL mortgages with BoI which were initially interest only. The interest-only period came to an end in mid-2014 and the rental income wasn't sufficient to cover full capital and interest repayments so I worked with the bank and they gave me a split mortgage which was to be reviewed after 3 years. This was reviewed this time last year so I'm now on full capital and interest repayments but the term of the mortgages have been extended. I have never missed any payments while on interest-only, split payments and full repayment mortgages. Would my BTL mortgages with BoI be considered non-performing and could be sold on to vulture funds if BoI were to sell on BTL loans in the future?