S
sjcburns
Guest
I have a question on CGT due on the sale of a house that started out as a PPR and was then rented, appreciate any input from anyone who can help me with this query ....
A house is bought in 1994 for 50K IEP, was a PPR from 1994 to 2003, re-mortgaged in 2003 and subsequently rented from 2003 to 2010, property sold in 2010 for 250K Euro. The property value at the time of rental / re-mortgage in 2003 was 280K.
My question is, if all the gain was made when the property was the PPR is CGT still due even though a loss of 30K Euro was made for the 7 year period that the property was rented ?
Thank You
A house is bought in 1994 for 50K IEP, was a PPR from 1994 to 2003, re-mortgaged in 2003 and subsequently rented from 2003 to 2010, property sold in 2010 for 250K Euro. The property value at the time of rental / re-mortgage in 2003 was 280K.
My question is, if all the gain was made when the property was the PPR is CGT still due even though a loss of 30K Euro was made for the 7 year period that the property was rented ?
Thank You