CGT on rental property sale

That doesn't sound right to me either. Surely it's when the beneficial ownership of the asset changes?
The beneficial ownership of the asset changes once there's an unconditional, binding contract for sale in force. From that point on, the purchaser can compel the owner to transfer title to him.

It's the legal ownership that changes at completion.
 
You mean that the purchaser is, for example, supposed to insure the property as their own from the time that they sign contracts as opposed to close the deal? That's not my experience.
 
The standard contract of sale expressly provides that the vendor will continue to insure the property until completion (but for the benefit of the purchaser). It also provides that the vendor will receive any income the property generates up to completion, and will be responsible for any outgoings.

But these provisions are all necessary in the contract because, if they weren't there, the opposite would be the case.

I'm old enough to remember when the standard contract didn't include that clause about insurance (and you have to be quite old for that; this was a long time ago). Purchasers'solicitors advised their clients that they needed to have insurance in place from the time the contract became unconditional, because they were at risk from that point on. (Insurers liked that state of affairs, because most properties were insured twice for the period between contract and completion. Vendors could cancel their insurance once the contract went unconditional but, in practice, mostly didn't.)
 
The beneficial ownership of the asset changes once there's an unconditional, binding contract for sale in force. From that point on, the purchaser can compel the owner to transfer title to him.
It's the legal ownership that changes at completion.
That is correct, or at least what my solicitor told me.

I was very puzzled by the CGT disposal/beneficial ownership transferring on the date of the binding contract rule - it didn't sound right, but that is the way the solicitor explained it. There are two types of ownership for some reason, beneficial and legal. The first transfers with the binding contract, and that is what CGT follows.
 
Thanks all, yeah thats the point I was confused about.. so CGT will only become liable in October 2027.. TBH in my case it doesnt really matter if its the signing of contracts or when money is transferred as it should happen in 2026 therefore will be due in 2027...
 
You mean that the purchaser is, for example, supposed to insure the property as their own from the time that they sign contracts as opposed to close the deal? That's not my experience.
My tenants told me the bank had asked them to get house insurance and mortgage protection for the mortgage approval, so even before any contracts! I dont know if this is right, but the fact that they are currently living their as tenants might have something to do with it...
 
I think solicitors try to get the contract signed and binding and the sale closed very close together to prevent you having a binding contract and no cash to pay the CGT, but it is something to watch in case there is a delay.
Yeah, but if CGT isnt due til the following year, you should have the money by then?
 
Colin 444

I think the Capital Gains Tax for disposals made between Janury 1st and Nov 3oth must be paid by Dec 15th of the same year.
And
Disposals between 1st December and 31st December must be paid by 31st January of the following year.

But your CGT return is only required on or before 31st October of the year that follows the disposal.

Still struggling to get my head around having to pay it when contacts are agreed. Doesn't really make sense as things could still fall through.
 
Once contracts are signed, things can't fall through - you can enforce the contract through the courts if necessary
 
That's what I was told, but if the contract is conditional on something, it becomes binding when the condition is fulfilled and that is the disposal date for CGT purposes.

It is all a bit odd, but I've been through a couple of sales now and I have had to get advice on the CGT. I'm sure the guy knows what he is talking about and the Revenue manual backs it up.

I think solicitors try to get the contract signed and binding and the sale closed very close together to prevent you having a binding contract and no cash to pay the CGT, but it is something to watch in case there is a delay.
I went back on my records from decades ago. My excel from then had Date of Acquisition as Date of contract, I must have got that from Revenue of the time, this is the days before google etc. And I used date of transfer, not contract, for Date of Sale. No accountant involved. I know I submitted a return and paid CGT. Then I used that excel for my recent sales. It also involved changing pounds to Euro's. Plus indexation relief.

So it seems Date of acquisition was always Date of Contract. I'm not really worried now about getting the date wrong, for the one where it matters the purchaser was getting a mortgage, which is a condition. So it's a 'conditional contract'. In my case the contracts and transfer were less than 30 days apart. (I've double checked now because of this thread).
 
Thank you JPD,
I understand that but to me it seems wrong to be paying CGT on money you havnt even received so may have to try borrow to pay it.
 
I think the Capital Gains Tax for disposals made between Janury 1st and Nov 3oth must be paid by Dec 15th of the same year.
And
Disposals between 1st December and 31st December must be paid by 31st January of the following year.

But your CGT return is only required on or before 31st October of the year that follows the disposal.
This is my case. I had to pay by Dec 15th which I did. Did the CGT calculation with my accountant and he did something to organise this for me. And then he put the details in the normal tax return for me the following year Form 11, but he mentioned he only had to put in a couple of details as revenue do not look for detailed calculations at all. They only do that in case of audit he said. I thought he'd done a CGT return before Dec 15th so I assume now this is not how it works.
 
Once contracts are signed, things can't fall through - you can enforce the contract through the courts if necessary
Of course things can still fall thru. The contract is not enforceable if it says 'subject to mortgage' and the bank pulls the mortgage approval. Which has happened. In addition, even if mortgage approval came thru, so the condition is satisfied if the purchaser pulls out, dies, goes to Australia, (which happened during the Celtic Tiger) then you'd be a fool to try and enforce it. You just keep your 10% and there is no sale.
 
Bronte
I too did one a few years back where I did date of contract as date of acquisition but thought it was cos we were buying the site and builder building for us a section 23 but used date of transfer for sale but probably didn't make a whole pile of difference.

For future sales I will have to check as not sure I would even know date of contract but then they would have been subject to mortgage approval anyway so probably only a few weeks difference.
 
I am about to exchange contracts on a sale where the unit was previously rented out.

As an overseas resident, my solicitor is requiring me to hire an accountant to perform the CGT calculation. He claims that he is liable for any shortfall in cgt and therefore requires this calculation from a chartered accountant. Another (tax deductible) cost to me then..
 
As an overseas resident, my solicitor is requiring me to hire an accountant to perform the CGT calculation. He claims that he is liable for any shortfall in cgt and therefore requires this calculation from a chartered accountant. Another (tax deductible) cost to me then..
I’m a non resident. My accountant told me his costs were not an eligible deduction for CGT. My solicitor who I’m close with never put a tax requirement on me, but she knows I do everything correctly tax wise etc. Plus I’ve other Irish property so maybe there was no concern there.
 
Of course things can still fall thru. The contract is not enforceable if it says 'subject to mortgage' and the bank pulls the mortgage approval. Which has happened. In addition, even if mortgage approval came thru, so the condition is satisfied if the purchaser pulls out, dies, goes to Australia, (which happened during the Celtic Tiger) then you'd be a fool to try and enforce it. You just keep your 10% and there is no sale.
So does the beneficial owner change on the date of contract, even if the contract isn't definitive - that seems a bit strange?
 
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