CGT on Property Sale

Ordinarily yes, but maybe not entirely in this case as the payment made by ex to be removed from mortgage might evidence a value for the property transfer if no other exists.
Thanks, but I still don't get it.
The original poster already said that they paid €55k when the property was worth (I presume slightly?) under €300k to buy the ex out (of the mortgage and/or property itself).
Isn't that the relevant info?
Or am I missing something?
 
So the poster paid €190k for 50% and then an unknown figure for the other 50%.

How much was the mortgage at that time and how was the €55k arrived at?

There’s also the ‘extra’ year of deemed ownership for PPR Relief.
 
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