Copy of actual query in the IT last Friday
In a recent Q&A, under the heading "residence query", you state that "the rules on investment properties hold that the last year of ownership is always considered to be owner occupation".
Could you elaborate on the implications of this statement for an investor? Does rental income or capital gains tax have any connection with the statement?
Mr J.D., Kildare
The situation is exactly the same for all property owners but, clearly, is of particular relevance to investors.
Normally, when selling a house you are liable to capital gains for any period when the house was let out. For an investor, this can be the whole period of ownership.
However, the rules state that, when assessing liability to capital gains, the final 12 months of ownership is deemed to be as owner occupier, regardless of whether the owner actually does occupy the property.
Indeed, it doesn't matter if you ever occupied the premises in question.
Thus, if, as an investor, you owned a house for 10 years, you would be liable to capital gains on only nine-tenths of the gain.
This clause relates only to capital gains.