CGT Base Cost for RSUs with Sell-to-Cover – Which Interpretation Is Correct?

cpfh01

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I’m trying to confirm the correct Capital Gains Tax (CGT) treatment for Restricted Stock Units (*RSUs) that vest, specifically regarding the base cost when a sell-to-cover mechanism is used to pay income tax at vesting.

Revenue guidance (including the Claire example) suggests that the market value at vesting is the acquisition cost for CGT purposes, since that amount is taxed as income. However, it doesn’t explicitly address cases where only net shares are retained after sell-to-cover. Professional guidance seems clearer, though still without a direct sell-to-cover example:
KPMG: “Any gain is calculated based on the sale proceeds, and the base cost is the value of the award on vest (i.e., the amount subjected to income tax).” (Source: KPMG Employee Share Incentive Schemes)

Could anyone confirm which interpretation is correct?

Scenario 1 (KPMG view):

RSUs vest with a market value of €1,000.
Income tax, USC, and PRSI withheld via sell-to-cover → approx. €521 tax paid.
I retain shares worth approx. €479.
If I sell those retained shares shortly after vesting for €479, this creates a capital loss of €521, since the CGT base cost is €1,000 (the amount taxed as income).


Scenario 2 (alternative view):

RSUs vest with a market value of €1,000.
Income tax, USC, and PRSI withheld via sell-to-cover → approx. €521 tax paid.
I retain shares worth approx. €479.
If I sell those retained shares shortly after vesting for €479, the CGT base cost is €479 (net amount retained), so the gain/loss would be €0.


From what I’ve read, Scenario 1 seems correct because Revenue treats the acquisition cost as the full vesting value, and KPMG appears to confirm this explicitly. That said, it feels counterintuitive—selling soon after vesting could generate an apparent ~50% capital loss—but tax law can be nuanced.

Questions:
1) Can anyone confirm which interpretation is correct?
2) Would it be advisable to query Revenue directly for clarification?

Thanks in advance for any insights!

*Restricted Stock Units (RSUs) are a form of equity compensation where an employer promises to give an employee company shares in the future, once certain conditions—like time-based vesting or performance goals—are met.
 
If I sell those retained shares shortly after vesting for €479, this creates a capital loss of €521, since the CGT base cost is €1,000 (the amount taxed as income).
I don't think that this is correct.
You received shares worth €1,000 and paid income tax/PRSI/USC on that nominal income.
You sold €521 of these shares to cover these costs.
These had a base cost of €521 so there was a nil capital gain.
You retained €479 worth of shares with a base acquisition cost of €479.
If you sell these for €479 then you have a nil capital gain.
 
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Scenario 1 doesn't make any sense. Is that actually detailed as a calculation anywhere? I would read "the value of the award on vest" that you've quoted from KPMG to be the value of each share and scenario 2 would then apply.
 
That said, it feels counterintuitive—selling soon after vesting could generate an apparent ~50% capital loss—but tax law can be nuanced.
Consider instead if there was a gain. The point is not to be taxed twice on the capital amount, only on the subsequent gain.

That only works properly in Scenario 2.
 
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I would suggest to think in terms of number of shares and cost per share rather than the total amount.
Scenario 1 does not make sense to me, suppose 10 shares worth 100 EUR each vests. They sell 6 share to cover the expenses (for simplification purposes let's say the tax due is 60%), you have 4 shares left. The market value of those 4 shares is still 100 EUR each, why you should have a loss for CGT purposes?
 
Thanks for the replies.
No, I couldn’t find any actual worked example from Revenue or elsewhere showing a CGT calculation in a sell-to-cover RSU scenario, which is why I raised the query.
I think the confusion for me really came from the KPMG wording:
“Any gain is calculated based on the sale proceeds, and the base cost is the value of the award on vest (i.e., the amount subjected to income tax).”
For me, that parenthetical — “the amount subjected to income tax” — seems to explicitly point to the gross vesting value as the CGT base cost, and I expected them to be a reliable source on taxation matters.
I agree Scenario 2 seems more plausible (so the base cost is the value of the shares you actually retain, not the original gross vest amount), but the confusion for me was primarily stemming from the KPMG info, which looked explicit.
 
"Any gain is calculated based on the sale proceeds, and the base cost is the value of the award on vest (i.e., the amount subjected to income tax).”
Think of it on an individual share/RSU basis and it makes sense. Not on the full value of the total grant that vests.
 
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