In my case I did alot of share dealing in 2002,2003 & 2004, but I never did tax returns on the transactions.
So it's just your opinion? I suspect that you are wrong and that a return is required whether or not there is any actual liability.
Have you read the TCAs and Tax Briefings on this stuff?
That was a straight question. If you read it as an ungracious challenge then that's not my problem.By the way, challenging Zaire's opinion by asking "Have you read the TCAs and Tax Briefings on this stuff?" is rather ungracious
... rather than trying to pick rows with everyone else here.I would have thought that you should at this stage be more concerned with the blatant inaccuracy of the advice you initally gave to the OP
What was the end of this. I find myself in Paul_M boat having not declared capital losses going back over 8 years. Is there a limit on how far can now declare them. can I just fill out the section in the F11 form "Amount of unused loss(es) from prior year(s) available for offset against chargeable
gain(s) above"
That doesn't seem to make sense in a world where Revenue restrict claims to 4 years that they would allow unlimited carry forward of losses.
Not that I know anything about the area but it just seems strange, do you have a source for that view?
Thanks for clarifying that, it still seems illogical to have an open-ended deduction on gains. I know it's not a repayment but it does reduce liability.
Now for a stupid question.
What happens where someone has been made bankrupt, can previous losses that presumably should have been wiped out by the declaration of bankruptcy be used?
Do the "transaction costs" include any stamp duty paid on the original transaction when setting the base cost for CGT?
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