Quick question and wondering if anyone has experience.
If my wife is in negative equity on a property she owned before we met, can I/we buy a new family house and exclude her from the mortgage or will any potential bank make me pay off her negative equity before allowing me to take out a new mortgage? For background it is fair to assume that I comfortably meet any lending requirements on my own and that is not an issue. We currently rent abroad.
I think a fair assumption would be that my wife would have little financial input into our household income as she is a live-at-home mum. I can personally quite easily meet the lending criteria on my own e.g. mortage would be 1-1.5x income. It's simply a case of we do not want to crystalise the losses on my wife's property which would be c.200k currently. The current rental income covers the mortgage and so from a cashflow perspective we're happy to leave it ticking over. Just to add, we currently do not own any properties together.
Additionally, does this change if the house deeds are in both of our names or just my own? e.g. would I have to completely exclude her from the purchase of the house?
In conclusion, I suppose the direct question is: Is there anyway for me to buy a house for our family to live in without having to deal (pay-off or include in future mortgage calculations) my wife's negative equity on what is now an investment property?
Thanks in advance!
If my wife is in negative equity on a property she owned before we met, can I/we buy a new family house and exclude her from the mortgage or will any potential bank make me pay off her negative equity before allowing me to take out a new mortgage? For background it is fair to assume that I comfortably meet any lending requirements on my own and that is not an issue. We currently rent abroad.
I think a fair assumption would be that my wife would have little financial input into our household income as she is a live-at-home mum. I can personally quite easily meet the lending criteria on my own e.g. mortage would be 1-1.5x income. It's simply a case of we do not want to crystalise the losses on my wife's property which would be c.200k currently. The current rental income covers the mortgage and so from a cashflow perspective we're happy to leave it ticking over. Just to add, we currently do not own any properties together.
Additionally, does this change if the house deeds are in both of our names or just my own? e.g. would I have to completely exclude her from the purchase of the house?
In conclusion, I suppose the direct question is: Is there anyway for me to buy a house for our family to live in without having to deal (pay-off or include in future mortgage calculations) my wife's negative equity on what is now an investment property?
Thanks in advance!