As the subject title asks, is this a reasonable assumption? Quick background (as stated in other thread I made a few minutes ago). I have serious residual debt leftover of a few hundred thousand. Was unable to reach informal agreement with bank. Negotiations are now over. I'm assuming the bank will lodge a judgement against me? Is this a normal next step that vavjsvtake? Or is it? Negotiations broke down last march. And I then received a letter demanding repayment in full within 21 days last August. And nothing since.