Duke of Marmalade
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There is no scope for arbitrage as in the possibility to make risk free profits, and I don't think Colm is suggesting his proposal is entirely risk free.So this is where the flaw in your argument is. I don't think that large discrepancies in returns can exist permanently in financial markets like this. If the relative returns to a basket of equities are so great, why aren't they arbitraged away?
All financial models of the market are based in some shape or form on the premise that there is a positive expected annual return on equities relative to bonds but a volatility about that return. Without getting too nerdish expected return increases (log) linearly with time whilst volatility varies with the square root of time. This is not only empirically observable but has a sound theoretical basis as well as being rather intuitive.
What this means is that the risk (volatility) reduces as a proportion of expectation with time.* Or in idiot boy language (needed for some in this parish) short term investors run more relative risk than medium term investors who run more relative risk than long term investors.
So it is not to arbitrage principles that we should have recourse but to supply and demand arguments. If the supply of equities was sufficiently small the demand from long term investors would be overwhelming and then the long term ERP would be pushed way down - though still positive. Shorter term investors would effectively be priced out of the equity market. However, observed ERPs of at least 3% p.a. suggest that long term investors do not dominate the market. Ergo long term investors get a "free lunch" - an ERP calibrated to a market which includes short and medium term investors who demand a higher incentive than long term investors. The key to understanding this phenomenon is to recognise is that all investors pay the same price.
* Example: expected annual return 5%, annual volatility 15% One year relative risk (V/E) = 15/5 = 3. Nine year relative risk = (15 * 3)/(5 * 9) = 1
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