I've gone sale agreed on a property off market a few months ago. The vendor owns a number of properties including this one. The vendor's solicitor said he was waiting for the consent of the bank to release the title deeds, then he would send contracts for sale. Last update he said he had oral consent from the bank and now awaits the written consent, at which point things can move on. I'm guessing the vendor is either getting some sort of write off and/or there are cross charges on the property which are being released, charges in respect of money borrowed on other properties. 1. Why would he need consent of the bank? Am I right in my guess? 2. Does the fact oral consent was given mean written consent will follow? How long does written consent take? Many thanks.