Adverse possession?

Hs2020

Registered User
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We have just bought a property with 2 acres attached. We have no plans for the land yet so when a local farmer asked if he could put a couple of cows on it we agreed. Apparently he has done so with the previous owners for years. Hence the alarm bells. Can he claim the land as his own if he has been using it for years? Do we need an agreement? We are new and don't want to upset the apple cart.
 
You always need an agreement or lease in these situations. Ask the farmer if has copies of old agreements with the prior owners. Is the oral agreement for grazing rights only or can he cut silage or perform other work on the land?
 
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