a question for language experts

But there are lots - actor/actress (anglicised version of French original), waiter/waitress, and god/goddess come to mind immediately.
These spelling variants don't seem to denote grammatical gender according to Wikipedia:
Noun classes may be expressed on nouns and pronouns alone, or in other parts of speech as well. An example of the former are the English words actor and actress, where the suffix -or denotes a male person or a person of unknown gender (masculine), and the suffix -ress (derived from French -rice) denotes a female person (feminine). This type of noun inflection is very rare in English, but quite common in other languages, including most of the Indo-European family, to which English belongs. Modern English normally does not mark nouns for gender, but it does express it through the third person singular personal pronouns he (male person), she (female person), and it (object, abstraction, or animal), and their other inflected forms.

When gender is expressed on other parts of speech, besides nouns and pronouns, the language is said to have grammatical gender. For example, in French the sentences Il est un grand acteur and Elle est une grande actrice mean "He is a great actor" and "She is a great actress", respectively. Not only do the nouns (acteur, actrice) and the pronouns (il, elle) denote the gender of their referent, but so do the articles (un, une) and the adjectives (grand, grande). This never occurs in Modern English (with the exception of blond/blonde), which therefore does not have grammatical gender. Old English had grammatical gender (example below), but with time its gender inflections were simplified, began to be confused with one another, and eventually merged.
 
Back
Top