Last edited: Jan 31, 2017 Hi all, I have an outstanding 15k unsecured personal loan with a bank - I defaulted in 2010 when the recession hit - I was self-employed. I negotiated a halt to the interest being accrued and have had no interest applied to the debt since 2010. I was paying €50 per month against the debt, then reduced to €25 per month but stopped these payments when I was made redundant in 2015. I haven't worked since. I am now receiving long-term disability due to an accident which resulted in a serious injury. I have had two operations to date, and don't know how or if I will ever work again. I am single, don't own a house, have no savings and my only asset is my car is worth €1,800. My medical expenses are approx. €220 per month. My income is solely the long-term disability allowance and I have moved home to live with my elderly parents. I am receiving solicitors letters which are very confusing - I received two letters saying "we enclose a copy of the judgement obtained against you" but there was nothing attached in either letter and I've had no notice of any judgement or court proceedings. The latest letter a few weeks ago says they have "received our client's instructions to commence Examination Proceedings". It's a form letter, not signed by a person, just the company name. It includes a Statement of Means form which I have filled out in the past. My question is how do I negotiate a write-down on the outstanding debt with the bank as the many many years of stressful threatening letters is wearing me down. My ex has offered me 6k to pay off the debt as he feels responsible for the accident that has left me unable to work. It's a one-time offer to be used against the loan, not for me personally. Should I write to the solicitors to make the offer or should I write to the bank? Would anyone know how to word this, or should I ask a solicitor to write on my behalf? Does it matter that the original overdraft agreement was granted for a period of 30 days only (as per the printed agreement that I signed) in order to pay some suppliers in advance of a client paying me, but after the 30 days, the overdraft was never called in - it remained at €9k, and as my work dried up due to the recession, I used the overdraft to pay my rent and bills. Does it matter that the bank didn't stick to the 30 day term as outlined in their own document? This is not an attempt to wriggle out of paying what I owe - my total debts from the recession were 40k and I have paid all except this last one. My current health issues mean that I have no idea whether I will ever work again. This last nugget of financial stress is unbearable. Any advice or suggestions would be very gratefully received.