I searched the forums but could not find an answer - I wondered if anyone knows if the VRT calc, specifically based on the OMSP values, on secondhand cars is a double taxation. I was in the VRO the other day and asked the question and could not get a definate answer. They are looking to find out the answer for me but I wondered if anyone knew?
For example on my car the OMSP is around 12k. They add on 30% VRT 3.6k. Is my car then worth 15.6k? The VRO seemed to think that my car was only worth 12k. Which would be a double taxation in my book as the 12k OMSP already accounts for the VRT that would have been paid on the same type of car when new.
Surely the OMSP should be the new car price without VRT but with VAT and other taxes applied, minus the yearly depreciation?
If it is a double taxation how would one go about contesting this?
For example on my car the OMSP is around 12k. They add on 30% VRT 3.6k. Is my car then worth 15.6k? The VRO seemed to think that my car was only worth 12k. Which would be a double taxation in my book as the 12k OMSP already accounts for the VRT that would have been paid on the same type of car when new.
Surely the OMSP should be the new car price without VRT but with VAT and other taxes applied, minus the yearly depreciation?
If it is a double taxation how would one go about contesting this?