Hi, I would appreciate some advice. I am divorced. My ex lives in the UK. I am living in the family home, no dependent children. An order for the sale of the property was made to which the bank have consented to but not to the shortfall proposal put to them. There is a residual debt of 155,000 which is now unsecured. I don't think i want the bank to get judgement to be burdened with for approx 12 and maybe even 18 years. An order was also made for the first 80,000 of the mortgage to be paid by my ex as this was a top up taken out by him for the incorporation of his company. I don't know what route to take. Please can you advise me.