Tax on non-PAYE income for 2020: tax on monies received or amount billed

I cannot believe that that you think you pay tax on revenue as opposed to profit.

A fundamental business tenet, this has to be a wind up , if not I worry about our entrepreneurial future.
@ Paul o Mahoney, I will keep my response amicable. This is not a wind-up and nowhere did I mention anything about profit.

And thank you who have replied to provide advice.

Just to re-cap:
This is additional income, I am a PAYE worker. Therefore I will be paying tax at 40% on profit from all non-PAYE income . The figures involved are 5 figures- €x0,000. It is a non-cash business and with fully traceable transactions and payments through a billing company.

Each year, 10-20% of invoices go unpaid/never paid. This is a fixed figure and can not be improved upon. This has been accepted.
My costs are fixed and do not vary significantly.

If I use the billing date of invoices- ie all invoices issued in 2020, My income from which I calculate my trading profit will be falsely high and I will overpay tax significantly (@40%).
If I maintain this then I am in a cycle of overpaying tax and then having to reclaim tax back.

If I use just the money I receive in 2020 (and each year moving forward) as income from which to calculate profit then I will be paying the correct amount of tax consistently.

I hope I have explained my situation adequately
I am also seeking professional advice but also a firm believer in seeking a second opinion.

Thank you again.
 
I find it hard to believe that someone you invoices €x0,000 per annum is not au fait with accounting and tax rules - it beggars belief
 
Each year, 10-20% of invoices go unpaid/never paid. This is a fixed figure and can not be improved upon. This has been accepted.
Are you registered for VAT? The additional paperwork for claiming back VAT on unpaid invoices is far more complex than calculating your taxable profit.

You've mentioned a few times the fact that the invoices are issued through a billing company - are the invoices in your name or a company name? I'm trying to understand if there's any significance to the mention of a billing company.

What you've described is simply a timing issue, not an overpayment.
 
Can you explain this please. (this is not intended sarcastically)
Revenue from memory do not allow you to claim vat from pro forma invoicing and they essentially stopped companies from doing it, I'm going back 20 years . We had a vat audit and we were told that the practice was illegal.

Again from memory it was professional services accounting and legal that were carrying out the practice.
 
This is my first year making a substantial return.
As I said, I am a PAYE worker and have a full-time job.
You are correct- I do not have a background in accountancy or Tax affairs.
Apologies for seeking advice on an open forum designed for people like me to ask these questions and learn as we go long.

If the consensus opinion is that I pay tax based on the invoice date, leading to consistent overpayments, then so be it.
It is natural to want to explore options and get second opinions.

I have an accountant who tells me that I used the date on the invoice and I am faced with a substantial tax bill which I know I am overpaying and when the invoices are unpaid next year I will have to claim a substantial rebate. I am due a face-to-face meeting with them soon.

Before meeting my accountant, I am seeking opinions on this scenario without throwaway remarks " beggars belief" or " worrying for our entrepreneurial future". I will assume you are either a qualified accountant or business person. If you are an accountant I would hope you do not talk to your clients like that. If you are a business person you may trade with someone starting up, again I would not suggest talking to them like that either.
It is healthy to question and seek second opinions.

Is there any precedent for paying tax on trading profit calculated from income received in a single tax year as opposed to invoices issued in the tax year?
 
@ Paul o Mahoney, I will keep my response amicable. This is not a wind-up and nowhere did I mention anything about profit.

And thank you who have replied to provide advice.

Just to re-cap:
This is additional income, I am a PAYE worker. Therefore I will be paying tax at 40% on profit from all non-PAYE income . The figures involved are 5 figures- €x0,000. It is a non-cash business and with fully traceable transactions and payments through a billing company.

Each year, 10-20% of invoices go unpaid/never paid. This is a fixed figure and can not be improved upon. This has been accepted.
My costs are fixed and do not vary significantly.

If I use the billing date of invoices- ie all invoices issued in 2020, My income from which I calculate my trading profit will be falsely high and I will overpay tax significantly (@40%).
If I maintain this then I am in a cycle of overpaying tax and then having to reclaim tax back.

If I use just the money I receive in 2020 (and each year moving forward) as income from which to calculate profit then I will be paying the correct amount of tax consistently.

I hope I have explained my situation adequately
I am also seeking professional advice but also a firm believer in seeking a second opinion.

Thank you again.
I apologise if I sounded crass, but if you are doing the figures you stated or even half that a basic understanding of accounts ,vat, invoicing would be needed.

I would find it difficult to believe that a business of that size would be run efficiently without a basic accounting package like sage or quickbooks.

The figures are large but there appears to be no back office?
 
That part is correct. A proforma invoice is not a VAT invoice.


Proforma invoices are 'illegal'?? First time I've heard that. And I've seen a lot of them.
Obviously I picked it up wrong then as I said this was 20 years ago and the audit was a difficult one
 
I apologise if I sounded crass, but if you are doing the figures you stated or even half that a basic understanding of accounts ,vat, invoicing would be needed.

I would find it difficult to believe that a business of that size would be run efficiently without a basic accounting package like sage or quickbooks.

The figures are large but there appears to be no back office?
I'd suggest the OP's business is not untypical of many one-man-band operations where the sole "product" offered is the owner's services, based on skills and experiences. I run a similar operation myself, since retiring from my main PAYE job, with a handful of customers accounting for the vast bulk of my revenue. My accounts, such as they are, are very simple. It's revenue based on invoices issued minus costs. Costs are fairly simple and cover things like professional subscriptions, insurance, trade journals, routine office supplies, phone, broadband, etc etc. Typically, costs are less than 10% of revenue. I have one lever arch folder where I keep invoices and receipts and an Excel spreadsheet to summarize it all.
Very simple and basic. The idea of a separate "back office" function is vast overkill!
 
I'd suggest the OP's business is not untypical of many one-man-band operations where the sole "product" offered is the owner's services, based on skills and experiences. I run a similar operation myself, since retiring from my main PAYE job, with a handful of customers accounting for the vast bulk of my revenue. My accounts, such as they are, are very simple. It's revenue based on invoices issued minus costs. Costs are fairly simple and cover things like professional subscriptions, insurance, trade journals, routine office supplies, phone, broadband, etc etc. Typically, costs are less than 10% of revenue. I have one lever arch folder where I keep invoices and receipts and an Excel spreadsheet to summarize it all.
Very simple and basic. The idea of a separate "back office" function is vast overkill!
That's what I meant by back office, a file with invoices both sales and expenses if applicable. But there doesn't even be that in the case above, and the poster is also a paye worker .

And the additional income figures substantial, it's a curious one.
 
That's what I meant by back office, a file with invoices both sales and expenses if applicable. But there doesn't even be that in the case above, and the poster is also a paye worker .

And the additional income figures substantial, it's a curious one.
There is nothing curious, I provide a professional service, a billing company will issue an invoice. The billing company gets paid. They withhold 20% tax and take a fee. They pay me the residual. At the end of the tax year, I pay the outstanding tax balance. I have recently employed an accountant and I am due to meet them soon.
I would really appreciate it if we could stick to the question without implied slights!

Again, I will distill my question into this:
Is there any precedent for paying tax on trading profit calculated from income received in a single tax year as opposed to invoices issued in that tax year?
 
There is nothing curious, I provide a professional service, a billing company will issue an invoice. The billing company gets paid. They withhold 20% tax and take a fee. They pay me the residual. At the end of the tax year, I pay the outstanding tax balance. I have recently employed an accountant and I am due to meet them soon.
I would really appreciate it if we could stick to the question without implied slights!

Again, I will distill my question into this:
Is there any precedent for paying tax on trading profit calculated from income received in a single tax year as opposed to invoices issued in that tax year?
" implied slights" really? you posted the initial post and now you've added withholding tax , commission and I would wonder what else will be added.

Simple answer no, and don't forget the 90% preliminary tax you'll have to pay for your 2021 income, profit, loss or whatever figure materialises.

Everyone here tries to help others it's the nature of the site, but its very difficult to do that when all the information isn't given.
 
If posters require further information, I am more than willing to supply it. I failed to appreciate how the process of how I issue invoices and receive payments is relevant to the question at hand: " Is there any precedent for paying tax on trading profit calculated from income received in a single tax year as opposed to invoices issued in that tax year?"

I am grateful for any advice from any source and will treat that advice with due diligence, especially from open forums.
If any other posters have a different opinion please let me know.
Otherwise, I am off to the revenue to overpay tax and then wait for the following tax year to reclaim a rebate.
 
Let's restart this, the facts are you have non paye income that is taxable, you say 20% isn't paid for unknown reasons, which is a very high number for any business to suffer btw.

Revenue do allow for bad debts to be written off against income, but there are rules that your accountant should advise you on, if he feels you can then you won't pay tax on that.

As you are subject to 20% retention tax that total amount will be set against your overall liability, obviously if it has been returned to Revenue in the correct way by those who are deducting it, you need to check this.

Any commission paid or accrued is also tax deductible and you should ensure its also correct and reconciled

You really need to do a p&l....

Gross invoices amount, less fees , less bad debts if allowed = taxable income at marginal tax 52% (40% +8% usc +4% prsi)

That's your liability, then deduct the amount of with holding tax and that's what you pay Revenue.

Then do the same for 2021 and pay 90% of the final figure as your preliminary tax which will also be due in this years return.
 
" Is there any precedent for paying tax on trading profit calculated from income received in a single tax year as opposed to invoices issued in that tax year?"
No, assuming you mean "cash received" rather than income...

Unless the invoices are in the name of the billing company rather than your personal name.
 
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