Thoughts?
A client wishes to lend 80% of the purchase price to his son and daughter in law. They will repay him with interest over 20 years - calculated on the basis of 1% above current deposit rates.
Father will declare the interest. The loan will be secured by way of a charge on the property and there will be a formal agreement to lend ( by her) and to borrow and repay (by them)
Is this possible or does it fall foul of money lending / consumer credit legislation?
mf
A client wishes to lend 80% of the purchase price to his son and daughter in law. They will repay him with interest over 20 years - calculated on the basis of 1% above current deposit rates.
Father will declare the interest. The loan will be secured by way of a charge on the property and there will be a formal agreement to lend ( by her) and to borrow and repay (by them)
Is this possible or does it fall foul of money lending / consumer credit legislation?
mf