Just wondering if anyone can explain to me why a pension, held by and wholly paid for by one spouse becomes an asset of the marriage on divorce which the other party can have a claim on?
I'm just struggling to understand how the spouse who plans prudently for their retirement can be penalised in favour of the one that does not. I know divorce is rarely fair but it just seems that this is completely unjust.
TIA
I'm just struggling to understand how the spouse who plans prudently for their retirement can be penalised in favour of the one that does not. I know divorce is rarely fair but it just seems that this is completely unjust.
TIA