Hello.
My mortgage lender has confirmed to me that they made an error in 2005 regarding the mortgage for my house. Their error was to offer me rates only that were ‘buy to let’. The house always has been the family residence and they have acknowledged (in writing) this information was passed to them. It meant that we were offered only ‘buy to let’ rates for 3 years after the error. The options included a 'buy to let ' tracker but we chose the ''buy to let' variable rate.
The lender sent correspondence asking us to agree (within 2 weeks of their letter) to their settlement which was not calculated for us. I had to request for a breakdown and it amounted to only €400.Their figure assumed we would be on the variable rate. That was last year.
I am curious as to whether I have any reasonable claim for a ‘tracker’ off them from this period. We had no tracker with them at any time previous to this.Is it worthwhile taking this to the ombudsman? Or am I chancing my arm? All advice welcomed.
My mortgage lender has confirmed to me that they made an error in 2005 regarding the mortgage for my house. Their error was to offer me rates only that were ‘buy to let’. The house always has been the family residence and they have acknowledged (in writing) this information was passed to them. It meant that we were offered only ‘buy to let’ rates for 3 years after the error. The options included a 'buy to let ' tracker but we chose the ''buy to let' variable rate.
The lender sent correspondence asking us to agree (within 2 weeks of their letter) to their settlement which was not calculated for us. I had to request for a breakdown and it amounted to only €400.Their figure assumed we would be on the variable rate. That was last year.
I am curious as to whether I have any reasonable claim for a ‘tracker’ off them from this period. We had no tracker with them at any time previous to this.Is it worthwhile taking this to the ombudsman? Or am I chancing my arm? All advice welcomed.