Given that the median age for deaths is well into the 80's, about half are in care homes and most have pre-existing conditions, how many of the people who died were dying anyway?
I'm asking because in the next few weeks we'll be having a discussion about lifting the lockdown (that's not a lockdown) and it's important the the discussion is had within the context of good data. It looks like the real infection rate is much higher than was first thought and the fatality rate is much lower. If one in every three hundred people who get the disease dies and the vast majority of people who die are very elderly and have pre-existing conditions then should we be unwinding the lockdown and putting our resources into protecting the at-rick groups?
I'm asking because in the next few weeks we'll be having a discussion about lifting the lockdown (that's not a lockdown) and it's important the the discussion is had within the context of good data. It looks like the real infection rate is much higher than was first thought and the fatality rate is much lower. If one in every three hundred people who get the disease dies and the vast majority of people who die are very elderly and have pre-existing conditions then should we be unwinding the lockdown and putting our resources into protecting the at-rick groups?