T trg Registered User Messages 90 5 Dec 2014 #1 Hi folks, Wondering if I am correct in saying that the case cost of shares inherited from spouse is the market value at date of death? Is there any connection to the cost of the shares incurred by the spouse when they bought them? Thanks
Hi folks, Wondering if I am correct in saying that the case cost of shares inherited from spouse is the market value at date of death? Is there any connection to the cost of the shares incurred by the spouse when they bought them? Thanks
N Nige Registered User Messages 1,030 5 Dec 2014 #2 The base cost, for CGT purposes, is, as you state, the value on the date of death of the person from whom they are inherited. The price that person paid for them is no longer relevant.
The base cost, for CGT purposes, is, as you state, the value on the date of death of the person from whom they are inherited. The price that person paid for them is no longer relevant.