Are the banks liable for loss in equity of mortgaged properties

Ryandd

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Just wanted to get some views on whether anyone knows if banks as owners of mortgaged properties are liable for loss in value. There is constant coverage about how much mortgages holders are in arrears and are liable for the balance if they sell their negative equity properties. I wonder when blanket guarantees for losses covers bond holders, was there not thought for negative equity properties which were mortgaged. The whole responsibility seems to sit with customers of the bank, regardless of non regulation and reckless lending policies. 100% mortgages and forcasting rising house prices in order to approve topup loans was a dangerous and irresponsible practice within the banking industry. Surley if investigations on lending activity and breach of regulations, banks should be forced to take responsiblity. The shoulder of blame needs to be refocused and not put on people who bought family homes.
 
Hi I may not have the terminology correct, It just that banks say that the house does not belong to the borrower until the full mortgage is paid, hence repossession. I may be wrong on this again!
 
Hi I may not have the terminology correct, It just that banks say that the house does not belong to the borrower until the full mortgage is paid, hence repossession. I may be wrong on this again!
Yep - but they don't own the property - they have a lien on the property but they didn't buy it.

Notwithstanding that, you could possibly develop a discussion around irresponsible lending practices - although a search on AAM will probably throw up similar threads...
 
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