My question is this, does the fact that the bank have issued a false document to me with the intention of obtaining an advantage (i.e. not lending me money at a very low rate where they are contractually obliged to) constitute a criminal offence of fraud. What does anyone think?
You mention an offset mortgage, was that through the old First Active?
You'd have a better chance of pursuing it under contract law than calling the cops.
You'll have to compare the two t&c 's and see where the differences are.
The original T&Cs are for a "residential investment property", the set issued by the bank recently appear to be for a home mortgage.
In my letter of complaint I might say, "you have issued the wrong T & Cs" do people think I would be justified or wise to add " as you have issued a false set of T&Cs which would place me at a disadvantage, this may amount to fraud"
The original T&Cs are for a "residential investment property", the set issued by the bank recently appear to be for a home mortgage.
You should be able to get the overpayment amount without difficulty.
The 'available facility' is actually not exactly the same thing, this refers to the original amount borrowed and had the facility for the loan to be increased back up to close to that amount based on certain conditions. The 'available facility' goes down over the years to allow for the fact that the loan is to be repaid within the initial term and usually once a year you get a letter telling you your new 'available facility'.
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