Hello Folks,
I have sold a property and have a CGT charge of circa 30k. My understanding is that I don't have to make the payment to revenue until the end of the year Dec 2025.
If that is the case why would I not invest the 30k in shares or crypto and say the investment:
a) TANKS and I loose the 30k. That is now a CGT liability and I deduct it from my charge and end up with a charge of Zero.
b) does well and say increases by 15k (50%) I then sell for 45k pay revenue 30k+5k (GCT on shares/crypto) I'm up 10k.
The reality is the loss or gain would be somewhere between the extremes I used in this example. But, the principle still remains the same. If there is a loss Revenue effectively takes the hit on my original CGT charge and if there is a gain I share it with revenue 30,70 to me. I think there must be a flaw in my thinking as this appears to be too easy.
My question is what am i missing here and why would I not do this?