A friend of mine has lodged a claim for unfair dismissal.
To date he's representing himself (which I think is a big mistake, but he won't listen) and has actually succeeded in winning a preliminary hearing on a number of issues including that his dismissal was unfair - his ex-employer did not hold a hearing & give reasons etc. just told him he was fired.
A final hearing on the case has been scheduled and the defence being put up is that he was employed for less than 12 months and so is not eligible for any compensation.
Here's the situation. Large corporation "X" subcontracts work to a number of firms including "A" and "B". Employees of A and B work in offices belonging to X and provide customer services to X's customers but are actually employees of either A or B.
My friend - worked as a full time employee for "A" up until about 4 months before his dismissal. He worked in an office that included employees of both A and B. 4 months ago he turned up for work and was told by his day to day supervisor (who is employed by X) that the management of companies A and B have agreed to transfer him from A to B. At the time, he didn't give it a second thought - employees of each did same job for same pay etc. The only thing that changed was the name of the employer on the top of his payslip. He was not asked for his consent, just told that he was an employee of B from a certain date.
After 4 months as an employee of B, he was dismissed and replaced by a close relative of the owner of company B. His best guess is that he was singled out for dismissal (as owners relative needed a job) as he was the only employee at that location who was employed by B for less than 12 months and so the owner figured he was immune from an unfair dismissal claim.
There isn't any documentary evidence of the transfer apart from payslips and tax records - everything was done verbally - and no new contract of employment was issued at the time of the transfer.
How is such a transfer regarded in employment law and can he claim continuous employment for more than 1 year?
To date he's representing himself (which I think is a big mistake, but he won't listen) and has actually succeeded in winning a preliminary hearing on a number of issues including that his dismissal was unfair - his ex-employer did not hold a hearing & give reasons etc. just told him he was fired.
A final hearing on the case has been scheduled and the defence being put up is that he was employed for less than 12 months and so is not eligible for any compensation.
Here's the situation. Large corporation "X" subcontracts work to a number of firms including "A" and "B". Employees of A and B work in offices belonging to X and provide customer services to X's customers but are actually employees of either A or B.
My friend - worked as a full time employee for "A" up until about 4 months before his dismissal. He worked in an office that included employees of both A and B. 4 months ago he turned up for work and was told by his day to day supervisor (who is employed by X) that the management of companies A and B have agreed to transfer him from A to B. At the time, he didn't give it a second thought - employees of each did same job for same pay etc. The only thing that changed was the name of the employer on the top of his payslip. He was not asked for his consent, just told that he was an employee of B from a certain date.
After 4 months as an employee of B, he was dismissed and replaced by a close relative of the owner of company B. His best guess is that he was singled out for dismissal (as owners relative needed a job) as he was the only employee at that location who was employed by B for less than 12 months and so the owner figured he was immune from an unfair dismissal claim.
There isn't any documentary evidence of the transfer apart from payslips and tax records - everything was done verbally - and no new contract of employment was issued at the time of the transfer.
How is such a transfer regarded in employment law and can he claim continuous employment for more than 1 year?