Very confused about this! Im a FTB my husband is not. We are going to sell our current house (his name is not on the deeds) and buy a bigger house. If only his name goes on the deeds can he be classed as a FTB, is this legal? he will be using some of the money from the sale of my house, can that be done? Would relly appreciate some help on this.
I don't think that you can legitimately avoid SD this way and believe that since you are buying a family home jointly and you, as a non FTB, obviously have a vested interest and are part funding the purchase, you will be jointly classed as non FTBs. You should double check by at least asking your solicitor though.