Hi,
I have a few queries about a married couple who were married & effectively living together for only 2&1/2 years. In that time they lived in his house, which he had exclusively paid for before they met. Also in this case, the man has significant assets & wealth, and the woman is a professional with her own means, and house with mortgage (rented out) , but little or no other assets.
1. What is the likely ruling of a separation /divorce proceedings?
2. Will the court seek to return the parties to their individual pre marriage finances??
3. Or is the woman in this case likely to be awarded a share of the family home, despite not paying anything towards it and only being married for 2&1/2 years in it???
Thanks for all info