Money Man, apologies for interrrupting your thread.
MF1 thanks for the reply. You are right, I meant to ask about my eligability for stamp duty exemption. I have to sell my pre-marital home ANYWAY and use the equity to buy a different house for my now extended family size and in a different location, so given that, if I sell it now - prior to sep agreement - then am i eligable to be exempt from stamp duty, because I would then be asset-free at time of sep agreement. Even if revenue would not "look kindly" on it, as you say, is it within the law / regulations? Because wouldn't I fall within the grounds of eligability to be stamp-duty free on the next purchase if I am asset-free at time of sep agreement (which could be another 6-9 mths) and if I walk away from any financial interest in our family home? I'd appreciate your response, and thank you ... very much.
Sudbury.