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Do you mean selling the contents to another separate buyer or something? If not and this is an attempt to avoid bumping the buyer into the next stamp duty bracket then bear in mind that this strategy is at best questionable and at worst illegal tax avoidance (yes - I mean avoidance and not evasion here). Make sure to ask your solicitor or a tax expert about the advisability of this way of selling.I have a house up on sale for 380K. I am also selling the contents seperately for 10K.
Do you mean selling the contents to another separate buyer or something? If not and this is an attempt to avoid bumping the buyer into the next stamp duty bracket then bear in mind that this strategy is at best questionable and at worst illegal tax avoidance (yes - I mean avoidance and not evasion here). Make sure to ask your solicitor or a tax expert about the advisability of this way of selling.
this strategy is at best questionable and at worst illegal tax avoidance (yes - I mean avoidance and not evasion here).
Yes - but I'm just pointing out that structuring the sale in the way described possibly to make it more attractive to buyers by keeping the buyers out of the next SD rate band should be pointless.Just to clarify, any ensuing tax liability would be upon the buyer, not the seller, so it should really be the buyer who contacts a tax expert. This is a perfectly legitimate transaction, however many buyers are under the impression that this route allows them to stay under the 381 threshold, this is not true and it is up to THEIR solicitor to inform them of this. This is not an issue for OP.
As I say - this is really an issue for the buyer but this way of structuring the deal will not avoid them being bumped into the €381,001-€635,000 6% (FTB)/7.5% (non FTB/investor) SD bracket.I am selling the contents to the buyer only. It is very much like - take house for 380K and contents for 10-15K. Now the contract will obviously be for 380K but the remaining amount will be paid seperately. It's very much like if you buy my house, you will have to pay extra for the contents. (much the same if you want to sell your car to the person who is buying your house)
It doesn't stop them changing brackets, but does it (I seem to remember coming across the full details on another thread before) change the figure which they pay the SD on? (e.g. still pay the higher percentage, but on a lower figure)As I say - this is really an issue for the buyer but this way of structuring the deal will not avoid them being bumped into the €381,001-€635,000 6% (FTB)/7.5% (non FTB/investor) SD bracket.
I am selling the contents to the buyer only. It is very much like - take house for 380K and contents for 10-15K. Now the contract will obviously be for 380K but the remaining amount will be paid seperately. It's very much like if you buy my house, you will have to pay extra for the contents. (much the same if you want to sell your car to the person who is buying your house)
Because the sale of the contents is (in all likelyhood) a transaction related to the sale of the house. See here and here for example.For second question, just out of curiosity tell me one thing, if the prospective buyer is buying my house for 380K. And he likes my car as well and decides to buy the car for 10K. Now this 10K by selling the car is none of Revenue's business, then how come 10K by selling the contents is.
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