sinbadsailor
Registered User
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Ask your lender what the capital sum outstanding is! If it's a fixed rate loan then you may face penalties for paying it off. Otherwise you just pay them the amount currently outstanding.If we have an apartment that we have paid interest only on for the first year and we now want
to sell it what would the final mortgage value be to clear?
but...If we have an apartment that we have paid interest only on for the first year ...
I'm confused...??Our mortgage payments are based on a principle plus interest over the life of the mortgage...
I was going to say that but the original poster doesn't actually clarify how long they have owned the property. If it's a year or less and they were on interest only then obviously the owe the original amount borrowed.If you have been paying interest only then I would imagine that the mortgage outstanding is exactly the same as it was when you took it out, ie. 100% of the capital still needs to be repaid.
Can you please post a complete history of the mortgage on this property as this is also unclear - e.g. what was the mortgage before this period?The property was remortgaged 12-13 months ago and new mortgage amount was 240k
That sounds about right.We paid 12 months interest only and 2 months at full payment at this stage. We are on
a tracker mortgage around 4.9%. We have owned it for 5 years
So what you are saying is that the 12k or so in interest only payments for the first 12
months is gone to the bank and we still owe the 240k less whatever principal portion
from the 2 full payments we have made since movin off interest only?
No - the interest payable is calculated on the reducing balance of capital outstanding. Since this was static for a year you still owe the same capital amount.But isnt the interest payable calculated over the life of the mortgage, so if you clear early
you are due some interest back since you have not hit the end of the term? i.e the interest
payable for the other 24 years does now not apply?
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