Blackrock1
Registered User
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have already paid arrears as if the property should have been classed two levels higher so that should see me right!
Blackrock1,
Have a look at the document you linked to above "guidelines-sale-transfer.pdf"
You are quoting from part 4.2.2 which relates to a request for General Clearance. The scenario you describe doesn't appear to fit in with General Clearance.
However, if you read on further in that document to part 4.3 this relates to Specific Clearance (page 16):
"4.3 Provision of specific Revenue clearance Revenue will consider specific written clearance on request from a vendor where the conditions in sections 4.2.1 to 4.2.4 above are not met but the vendor, nevertheless, claims that the valuation at the 1 May 2013 valuation date was made in good faith. This clearance will be separate to the standard online clearance described in section 3.2 above in relation to crystallised LPT liabilities at the date of sale. It will relate solely to potential ‘uncrystallised’ liabilities arising after a property is sold. Revenue will examine the valuation band/chargeable value that was declared in relation to the 1 May 2013 valuation date. Where it is satisfied that this was reasonable, it will confirm that there will not be a charge on the property following its sale. Alternatively, where it is not satisfied that the valuation band/chargeable value that was declared was reasonable, it will not provide clearance but will, instead, make a Revenue assessment on the vendor".
If "Specific Clearance" is granted to you by the LPT office, there is no need to pay a higher level of LPT.
Check part 4.3 for the supporting documents you need to make an application for Specific Clearance.
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