Brendan Burgess
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So the answer is to neutralise that syndrome by making them no worse off (but also no better off) with regard to their house purchase objective as a result of saving for their pension. They should be allowed to withdraw their own contributions.
I presume by this you mean only the employee's contributions, possibly with accrued growth.A first-time buyer should be allowed to take an advance of the current value of their contributions
I presume by this you mean only the employee's contributions, possibly with accrued growth
I don't think it makes sense to force the repayment of the advance on the sale of the home. That keeps her firmly on the first rung of the housing ladder.
If you leave the Employers cont in it may work better for public and private sector workers to take an advance on there pension,Hi Duke
Yes. I have amended it as follows:
Proposal: A first-time buyer should be allowed to take an advance of the current value of their own contributions but not the employer's contributions or the Revenue top-up
Well of course that answers my objection. I see the merit in your suggestion now, and it does have the psychological effect of reminding folk that they have "borrowed" from their pension, a reminder to remedy that situation in due course.To allow her trade up...
She could be allowed to borrow the money again for a second or subsequent purchase of a family home.
Brendan
Probably being pedantic here. But Brendan has altered his objective in this context to try and ensure that the house purchase priority does not obstruct the AE objectives. He may well have a separate objective to help FTBs but he is not addressing that here. A separate SSIA scheme to help FTBs would most certainly compete with the AE initiative.I don’t think that’s a particularly good idea (it would inevitably be inflationary) but it would meet the objective of Brendan’s proposal, with a lot less complexity.
If somebody wants to prioritize buying a house (or anything else for that matter) over saving for retirement they can simply opt of AE - it won’t be mandatory.
I think it is entirely appropriate for the State to defer taxing an element of income to encourage a taxpayer to provide for his old age.
It's not a loan, it is an advance. It is deducted from net benefits. The concept of "defaulting" only arises if the net distribution from the combination of this advance plus the employer's contribution plus the state top-up exceeded the advance. A very unlikely possibility. To simplify the example let us assume tax is flat at 25% and there is no TLFS and there is no investment growth.The ability to draw down up to €50k from a pension pot, tax-free, before retirement age would obviously be very attractive but I don’t see how this constitutes a loan in any meaningful sense. There is obviously no obligation on anybody to take a TFLS at retirement or to contribute anything further to a pension having drawn down the advance benefit.
I admit that it is not without complications. Would it be possible, for example, to pay back the advance before retirement, in which case would it enjoy the 25% TFLS?I hadn’t appreciated that there would be a deemed repayment of the advance, followed immediately by a deemed (taxable) distribution of the same amount at some point in the future.
Would this be deemed to have taken place on the earlier of reaching 55 (the earliest age that an occupational pension can be drawn down) or the demise of the individual concerned?
Presumably, as things stand, that deemed distribution would be liable to USC and PRSI, which would not have been relieved on contributions.
Ok but how would you treat investment gains/losses?Personally I would prefer that the employee can simply withdraw the value of her contributions for FTB and that the associated State top up (i.e. 1/3rd of the amount withdrawn) would be returned to Revenue.
They would withdraw the value of their units at the time of withdrawal, or put another way they would withdraw 3/7ths of the total value of units in the fund and 1/7th would be returned to Revenue.Ok but how would you treat investment gains/losses?
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