The definition of a persons PPR for most taxes i.e. stamp duty, CGT, income tax is usually worded in a similar manner i.e. the property is the persons sole or main property. Has anyone seen how Revenue apply the "main"residence condition in practice.
Take an extreme example, you have a non resident individual who owns a property in Ireland which they stay in any time they visit during the year, assume about 6 weeks in a year. Now say, due to the nature of their work or for whatever reason they move about frequently in their country of residence so that they did not reside anywhere else for longer than 6 weeks in the tax year. In that situation it would seem that the Irish property is their main residence for the year. It seems strange that a person with so little presence in Ireland could have an Irish PPR. However if the Irish property is not their "main" residence which property would be.
Considering the relevance of the PPR definition to numerous taxes and reliefs I am surprised that Revenue have never clarified the matter and stated that you need to be in the property x number of days in a year.
Any thoughts?
Take an extreme example, you have a non resident individual who owns a property in Ireland which they stay in any time they visit during the year, assume about 6 weeks in a year. Now say, due to the nature of their work or for whatever reason they move about frequently in their country of residence so that they did not reside anywhere else for longer than 6 weeks in the tax year. In that situation it would seem that the Irish property is their main residence for the year. It seems strange that a person with so little presence in Ireland could have an Irish PPR. However if the Irish property is not their "main" residence which property would be.
Considering the relevance of the PPR definition to numerous taxes and reliefs I am surprised that Revenue have never clarified the matter and stated that you need to be in the property x number of days in a year.
Any thoughts?