Thank you for all your individual input,which has been extremely helpful. If I might prevail upon you a little further, my friend purchased a property for and which she gave ownership to,her daughter who,at the time,was getting married. Am I correct in thinking that this house would not form part of the assets taken into account because legal ownership is in her daughter's name?
My friend also has a son,who is now engaged to be married. If she used any or all part of the proceeds from the eventual sale of her business,to purchase a property for her son,so that his name would be on the deeds ( as in Daughter's case), would that property be similarly excluded or is it possible the court would " look through" the arrangement?